Google would really like it if everyone just paid for YouTube Premium instead.
@[email protected]
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39M

Heads up, “I’ve” is not grammatically correct when “have” is your verb. Using “have” in a contraction when you’re using past-perfect tense. For example, “I’ve been” is an acceptable shortening of “I have been”.

Is it actually incorrect? I don’t think it’s necessarily wrong, but it just sounds bizarre or Shakespearean if you use it when it’s not an auxiliary verb.

“I’ve no need for that.” is a perfectly cromulent sentence.

Billegh
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69M

Yeah, not “incorrect,” just non-standard. The yardstick is: did your interpretation match the intended one? Clearly, he was able to get there so it’s firmly in “acceptable use.” Any further whinging about grammar is likely to just be construed as gatekeeping.

@[email protected]
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19M

I’m a prescriptivist and I think it’s fine. I suspect it might be a British vs American English thing.

LordWarfire
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49M

As a native BrE speaker I’d say “I’ve X installed” is a little weird, fine in speech but written down it doesn’t look right. “I’ve installed X” is fine.

@[email protected]
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09M

The yardstick is: did your interpretation match the intended one?

I think that’s just you. There’s a few examples of rules in English that aren’t required to get a point across, but sentences that break them sound grating. One such example is adjective order

Billegh
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09M

I think you’re conflating correctness with comprehension. Even if it isn’t correct, you could still be understood.

@[email protected]
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-29M

Per your previous comment:

Yeah, not “incorrect,” just non-standard. The yardstick is:

Clearly, he was able to get there so it’s firmly in “acceptable use.”

I’m not the one conflating the two concepts.

Billegh
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09M

Don’t worry, one day you’ll understand.

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